1 – Which of the following quinolones does not reach adequate levels in the urine and should not be used for UTIs?
A – Levofloxacin
B – Moxifloxacin
C – Ciprofloxacin
D – Delafloxacin
E – Gemifloxacin
2 – Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of quinolones?
A – Inhibit bacterial protein synthesis by binding to the 30S ribosomal subunit
B – Inhibit bacterial protein synthesis by binding to the 50S ribosomal subunit
C – Inhibit bacterial cell wall synthesis
D – Inhibit bacterial DNA topoisomerase IV and DNA gyrase causing breakage of double-stranded DNA
E – None of the above
3 – Which of the following is a key counseling point for a patient taking ciprofloxacin for UTI?
A – This medication may cause a metallic taste
B – Avoid sun exposure; this medication can increase your sensitivity to the sun
C – This medication can cause permanent discoloration of teeth
D – Take this medication with a full glass of milk for better absorption
E – This medication may cause dry mouth and increased thirst
4 – Which of the following statements regarding quinolones is false?
A – They are first line options for acute bacterial sinusitis and uncomplicated UTI
B – They are not recommended for routine use in children due to risk of cartilage toxicity
C – They can increase the effects of warfarin
D – They may cause hyper or hypoglycemia
E – There is decreased absorption if administered with antacids containing magnesium, aluminum or calcium
5 – All of the following are warnings associated with quinolones except?
A – QT prolongation
B – Tendonitis
C – Glucose abnormalities
D – Psychiatric disturbances
E – Ototoxicity
6. Identify the quinolones.
1 – Do not use to treat UTIs ____________
2 – Active against Pseudomonas ____________
3 – No renal dose adjustment required ____________
4 – Do not use for community acquired- pneumonia. _____________
5 – Effective against MRSA _____________
7 – Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of Macrolides?
A – Inhibit bacterial protein synthesis by binding to the 30S ribosomal subunit
B – Inhibit bacterial protein synthesis by binding to the 50S ribosomal subunit
C – Inhibit bacterial cell wall synthesis
D – Inhibit bacterial DNA topoisomerase IV and DNA gyrase causing breakage of double-stranded DNA
E – None of the above
8 – Macrolides have excellent coverage of:
A – MRSA
B – Pseudomonas
C – Atypicals
D – Anaerobes
E – All of the above
9 – LP is a 38 year old female diagnosed with H. pylori disease. The doctor sent in a prescription for prevpac (amoxicillin + clarithromycin + lansoprazole). Patient’s home medications include: simvastatin 40mg daily, lisinopril 20mg daily. How should you proceed with this prescription?
A – Verify the prescription as written
B – Do not verify as lansoprazole is contraindicated with simvastatin
C – Do not verify as clarithromycin is contraindicated with simvastatin
D – Do not verify as clarithromycin is contraindicated with lisinopril
E – Do not verify as lansoprazole is contraindicated with simvastatin
10 – Which of the following statements regarding macrolides is false?
A – Macrolides Inhibit bacterial protein synthesis by binding to the 50S ribosomal subunit
B – Brand name of clarithromycin is Biaxin
C – There is growing macrolides resistance against S. pneumoniae
D – Clarithromycin and Azithromycin are strong CYP3A4 inhibitors
E – Macrolides are associated with QT prolongation
11 – Azithromycin is an appropriate treatment option for which of the following?
A – COPD exacerbation
B – Community acquired pneumonia
C – Chlamydia
D – Travelers’ diarrhea
E – All of the above
12 – Which of the following statements regarding doxycycline is false?
A – It requires no renal dose adjustment
B – It does not have activity against MRSA
C – It may cause photosensitivity
D – It is the first line treatment option for lyme disease
E – IV to PO ratio is 1:1
